GreyCampus Six Sigma Black Belt Certification Exam Answers

Related Articles

Certiprof Prompt Engineering Foundation Professional Certification Answers

November 18, 2024

Itronix Blockchain Professional Certification Program

October 29, 2024

Corporate Finance Professional Certification

October 15, 2024

GreyCampus Six Sigma Black Belt Certification Exam Answers

Apply for this Certification: Click Here

Course Highlights:

Free Courseware!

Gain access to our course that is in line with ASQ’s Six Sigma Black Belt Certification curriculum for free!✔

No Prerequisites!

Anyone interested in getting a clearer insight into Quality Management and/or interested to learn the basics for ASQ’s Six Sigma Black Belt Certification Exam can take up this course.✔

Learn at your pace!

Take your own time in working through a module before moving on to the next one. It’s perfectly okay, in fact, better, to redo/review a module once you finish it!

Don’t Miss out on this Opportunity: CLICK HERE

FOLLOW MY SOCIAL MEDIA CHANNELS, TELEGRAM CHANNEL, AND WHATSAPP GROUP FOR THE LATEST UPDATES ON FREE COURSES, CERTIFICATIONS, SCHOLARSHIPS, INTERNSHIPS, AND JOBS

How to Apply?

Questions and Answers:

Q1) One would say that continuous flow manufacturing:

I. Increases product damage

II. Requires less storage and transport

III. Reduces cycle time

IV. Provides mechanisms to solve other production problems

• I and II only
• I and III only
• II and IV only
• II, III, and IV only

Q2) Identify the design methodology that incorporates concurrent engineering, Taguchi robustness concepts, and convergence techniques.

• Critical parameter management
• Systematic design
• Pugh analysis
• Set-based design

Q3) Random selection of a sample:

• Theoretically means that each item in the lot had an equal chance to be selected
• Ensures that the sample average will equal the population average
• Means that a table of random numbers was used to dictate the selection
• Is a meaningless theoretical requirement

Q4) The classic problem solving step that includes finding all possible causes and potential solutions is called:

• Investigate the problem
• Identify the problem
• Analyse the problem
• Solve the problem

Q5) Identify the subjective root cause analysis tool from the options below:

• 5 whys
• Pareto analysis
• Control charts
• Regression analysis

Q6) If, in a t test, alpha is .05. Therefore:

• 5% of the time one will say that there is no real difference, but in reality there is a difference
• 5% of the time one will say that there is a real difference when there really is not a difference
• 95% of the time one will make an incorrect inference
• 95% of the time the null hypothesis will be correct

Q7) Which group of employees in the organization lose decision making power by increasing employee involvement efforts?

• Top management
• Middle management
• Supporting staff functions
• Operators

Q8) There are many types of organizational change. A management delayering process would be considered to be a:

• Strategic change
• Technological change
• Structural change
• Behavioural change

Q9) An experiment has 3 factors with 2 levels and 1 factor with 3 levels. What is the minimum number of trials necessary if all interactions are ignored?

• 4
• 5
• 6
• 7

Q10) Which three of the following assist with the standardization of work?

I. Visual controls

II. 5S

III. Kanban

IV. EWMA

• I, II, and III
• I, II, and IV
• I, III, and IV
• II, III, and IV

Q11) Valid reasons for removing a team member from a team include:

I. Personality conflicts

II. Lack of skills by the member

III. Poor team meeting attendance

IV. Member needed for other activities

• II and IV only
• I, III, and IV only
• II and III only
• I, II, III, and IV

Q12) The correlation coefficient for test #1 equals -0.89 and the correlation coefficient for test #2 equals 0.79. Assuming the tests are in different subject areas, what statement is NOT true?

• Both tests show a strong correlation
• The scatter around the regression line is greatest for test #1
• The slope for test #1 is negative
• Y increases as X increases in test #2

Q13) An effective control system is characterized by formal documents. What documentation level describes how to accomplish specific tasks?

• The control manual
• Operating procedures
• Work instructions
• Records and forms

Q14) Which of the below is a non parametric test

• Regression
• 2 tailed 2 sample t test
• ANOVA
• Kruksal test

Q15) Variation in the shape parameter for the Weibull distribution can, in turn, create all of the following distribution shapes, EXCEPT:

• Rayleigh
• Hypergeometric
• Normal
• Exponential

Q16) Lessons learned for a project would typically include all of the following, EXCEPT:

• How to secure increased funding for similar projects
• The effectiveness of the entire project
• How to avoid mistakes that were made
• The adequacy of project resources

Q17) In order to achieve the desired level of control after an improvement in process capability, it may be necessary to:

• Establish a prototype control plan
• Re-evaluate the measurement system
• Install visual management systems
• Conduct an operator training effort

Q18) A small positive change truly exists between a test trial and the current process. However, the sample from the test trial happens to demonstrate a radical improvement. What type of decision would probably be made?

• A type II error
• A 1-alpha decision
• A type I error
• A 1-beta decision

Q19) A team would be operating in which phase of the Shewart cycle if they were in the process of conducting a pilot program test activity?

• Plan
• Act
• Check
• Do

Q20) A consultant has defined certain acceptance criteria for cities to be classified as either progressive or nonprogressive. There are ten acceptance criteria. A survey of the cities of interest is conducted and the number and degree of match to the criteria will determine the progressive status. This multivariate technique is known as:

• Factor analysis
• Principal component analysis
• Cluster analysis
• Discriminant analysis

Q21) What is the major advantage of the A3 report?

• It is more thorough than other problem solving tools
• It is a concise problem presentation format
• It requires less preparation time than other reports
• It minimizes the need for a follow-up plan

Q22) The hypergeometric distribution is:

• A continuous distribution
• Used to describe sampling from a finite population without replacement
• The limiting distribution of the sum of several independent discrete random variables
• A special case of the Poisson distribution

Q23) If an improvement team were to investigate their customer base by moving from general to more specific customer needs, what technique would be employed?

• Pareto analysis
• Kano model
• CTQ tree
• Affinity diagram

Q24) The primary purpose of rewards and recognition for teams and team members, from an organizational management perspective, is:

• To document performance for the annual performance evaluations
• To monetarily compensate team members for their time and effort
• To avoid having to pay team members overtime or to provide time off
• To reinforce desired behaviours and induce repetitions of those behaviours

Q25) If the data is accurate but not precise it is a problem of

• Centering
• Spread
• Dispersion
• A&B

Q26) Identify the project that would be LEAST critical to delivery improvement?

• Provide rapid field service
• Minimize shipping damage
• Reduce product and process variation
• Meet customer packaging requirements

Q27) Lean manufacturing would be most concerned with:

I. Reducing waste

II. Reducing people

III. Reducing management layers

IV. Eliminating bottlenecks in a process

• I and IV only
• I, II, III, and IV
• I, II, and IV only
• I and III only

Q28) The critical path in a project means that:

• The project is important to the profits of the organization
• Slack times can be used to delay the ending date of the project
• Delays of events on this path delay the ending date of the project
• Activities cannot be crashed

Q29) As a rule, which of the following statements can be made regarding organizations that are tall and narrow?

• They are less bureaucratic than many other structures
• Communication channels allow for the rapid dissemination of information
• They are typical for many large organizations
• They handle decision-making rapidly

Q30) A graphical display of the total percentage of results below a certain measurement value is called a(an):

• Histogram
• Probability density function
• Cumulative distribution function
• Expected value

Q31) The alpha critical region, to determine if a new pen lasts longer, would be placed:

• In the upper tail
• In both upper and lower tails
• In the lower tail
• In neither tail

Q32) When calibration is being performed on a measuring device, and no applicable national reference standard exists, then an acceptable alternative is to:

• Create the standard based on 10 readings from each of the 3 technicians
• Petition NIST to establish a standard for the device
• Document the method of establishing and maintaining the standard used
• Indicate in the device calibration records “calibration not required”

Q33) Which of the following statements best reflects the difference between typical and breakthrough benchmarking?

• Researching the competitive and non-competitive intelligence
• Attempting to surpass the performance of the benchmarked source
• Determining the leader in the areas felt to be deficient
• Identifying all major critical success functions

Q34) The key difference between internal and external customers is:

• Their interest in the product or service
• Internal customers can influence the design of the product
• External customers usually influence the design of the product
• External customers best determine the true quality of the product

Q35) An accommodating approach to conflict resolution is most appropriate when:

I. One party is wrong

II. The issue is much more important to one party

III. Both views are seen as important

IV. An integrated solution is desired

• I and II only
• II and III only
• I and IV only
• II and IV only

Q36) A project has been completed and the final report has been written. The next activity relevant to the project is:

• Benefit-cost analysis
• Post-mortem analysis
• Reward and recognition of project team members
• Document archiving

Q37) The analysis of risk involves two measures of failure. These measures are:

• Failure analysis and failure effects
• Failure mode and failure method
• Failure severity and failure probability
• Failure mechanism and failure mode

Q38) What is a major distinction between the CPM and PERT methods in the evaluation of project performance?

• Only the PERT method can be displayed on a Gantt chart
• The PERT technique allows for easier crashing of project time
• The PERT technique permits network relationships, and CPM does not
• The PERT technique is event oriented, while CPM is activity cantered

Q39) Arrange the following CTQ elements in appropriate time sequence from start to finish.

I. Add additional levels as needed

II. Identify the customers needs

III. Identify the customers

IV. Validate the requirements with the customer

V. Identify the customers basic requirements

• III, II, IV. V, I
• II, III, IV, I, V
• II, III, V, IV, I
• III, II, V, I, IV

Q40) Understanding customer needs is a constant requirement for organizations. Customer data and information is often collected in various amounts. The organization should resolve to:

I. Use more proactive approaches

II. Focus on improvement plans

III. Identify customer satisfaction drivers

IV. Sort out the unneeded customer data

• I only
• II and III only
• I, II, and III only
• I, II, III, and IV

Q41) According to Juran, what the customer thinks he/she desires, would be classified as:

• Stated needs
• Real needs
• Perceived needs
• Cultural needs

Q42) Kaplan and Norton have outlined a business planning process that gives consideration to factors other than financial ones. It provides more perspectives for stakeholder interests. This approach is referred to as:

• Balanced scorecard
• Strategic planning
• Five forces of competitive strategy
• Quality function deployment

Q43) Community or society quality benefits resulting from a business enterprise would NOT include which of the following?

• Safe products to use
• Enhanced ability to pay taxes
• Prestige and self-fulfilment
• An expansion of job openings

Q44) TPM in relationship to the lean enterprise system means:

• Total productive maintenance to maximize equipment usage
• Total preventive maintenance to reduce total cost
• Total process management to manage process cost
• Total preventive maintenance to minimize downtime

Q45) During a project work breakdown structure, a number of planning activities occur. Which of the following items is NOT included?

• The project objective is defined
• The work is divided into smaller activities
• The interrelationships between activities are defined
• The project schedule is established

Q46) Little’s law is widely used as a determination of:

• Value added times
• Process flow times
• Productive maintenance requirements
• Nonconforming material control

Q47) Control limits are set at the three sigma level because:

• This level makes it difficult for the output to get out-of-control
• This level establishes tight limits for the production process
• This level reduces the probability of looking for trouble when none exists
• This level ensures a very small type II error

Q48) A project team has been functioning very well for about two months. One member has suggested a different approach to solving the problem they have been working on. The other members strongly reject the idea. This is an example of:

• Mind think
• Groupthink
• Isolationism
• Active-passive behaviour

Q49) When a problem solving team applies the 5 whys technique, they are attempting to:

• Determine if the interviewee is telling the truth
• Understand the basics of the problem
• Eliminate areas not to investigate
• Determine the root cause of the problem

Q50) What key step would follow an evaluation of current practices against a benchmark?

• Identifying key performance factors
• Selecting performance criteria based on priorities
• Determining a leader in a critical performance area
• Undertaking significant changes to advance performance

Q51) The tool/technique most widely used by a number of automotive manufactures that supply products to Toyota is called:

• Kanban
• Muda
• Poka-yoke
• An andon board

Q52) If the specified project goals, time deadlines, and cost constraints were not met, then one can say that:

• The project was a dismal failure
• The project team needs additional training
• The team leader should not be trusted with other projects
• It depends upon whether there were other outstanding accomplishments

Q53) Which of the following is a continuous probability distribution?

• Weibull
• Hypergeometric
• Binomial
• Poisson

Q54) In the SMED system what is the real meaning of the single minute concept?

• That dies will be exchanged in 1 minute or less
• That dies will be exchanged in less than 5 minutes
• That dies will be exchanged in less than 10 minutes
• That dies will be exchanged in less than 15 minutes

Q55) Which of the following statements about check sheets is NOT true?

• Recording subjective opinion doesn’t make it measured data
• Check sheets cannot record subjective data
• A shopping list is a check sheet
• Both variable and attribute data can be recorded on a check sheet

Q56) A design method based on the use of a matrix-based process to refine the conceptual designs is called:

• Set-based design
• Systematic design
• The Pugh method
• TRIZ

Q57) Assume that scenario planning has occurred and the management team has identified potential courses of action in the case of an event occurrence. What is the next key step?

• Establish an early warning sign for scenario arrival
• Develop a list of perceived social, technical, or economic shifts
• Develop a list of the top scenario priorities
• Determine how key scenarios will affect the organization

Q58) Relative to the duties and responsibilities of departments within a six sigma company, the most critical requirement calls for:

• Task forces and teams
• The establishment of liaison roles
• A matrix organizational structure
• Cross functional collaboration

Q59) Assume that a team leader developing a project schedule wants to simplify the charting process. List the following techniques in order of complexity, from least complex to most complex.

I. CPM

II. Gantt

III. PERT

• I, II, III
• I , III, II
• II, III, I
• III, II, I

Q60) The most frequent error made by top management, when dealing with system variation, is:

• Treating common causes as special causes
• Considering all causes to be local causes
• Recognizing that common causes require quick action
• Treating special causes as common causes

Q61) The repeated trials in a designed experiment allow for:

• First order modelling
• Determination of experimental error
• Nested experimentation
• The resolution of main effects

Q62) The major advantage of process mapping is:

• Presenting a topological representation of the situation
• Capturing all process variables in a compact matrix
• Defining the likely source of the defects
• Visualizing the process being described

Q63) In the drum-buffer-rope methodology, what role does the drum play?

• The process output
• The process constraint
• The process feedback
• The process inventory

Q64) Given a C p of 1.5 for a process and the same standard deviation and specification limits for the calculation of capability or performance indices, one would not be surprised to find:

I. C R and P R to be equal

II. C R to be less than P p

III. P R to be less than C p

IV. C p and P p to be equal

• I only
• I and IV only
• II and III only
• I, II, III, and IV

Q65) After returning from a two-week vacation, you are reviewing the X-bar and R charts which have been maintained during your absence. One of the X-bar charts shows the last 50 points to be very near the centre line. In fact, they all seem to be within about one sigma of the centre line. What is the best explanation for this occurrence?

• Somebody “goofed” in the original calculation of the control limits
• The process standard deviation has decreased and nobody recomputed the control limits
• This is terrible, perhaps we’ve been producing scrap
• This is fine, the closer the points are to the centre line the better our control

Q66) Of the various statistical analysis tools, which one would be most likely to show a plot of all readings taken?

• X-bar – R charts
• Multi-vari charts
• ANOVA
• Chi square

Q67) If a control chart has UCL = 45.1 and USL = 45.6, and the last sample has values of 44.6, 45.7 and 44.8, one can conclude:

• The process is within specification and in control
• The process is within specification but out-of-control
• The process is out of specification but in control
• The process is out of specification and out-of-control

Q68) The most common subgrouping scheme for X-bar and R control charts is to separate the variation:

• Within stream versus stream-to-stream
• Within time versus time-to-time
• Within piece versus piece-to-piece
• Inherent process versus error of measurement

Q69) If we were to compare short-term capability with long-term capability for the same process, one should not be surprised to find:

• The long-term capability improves
• The Cp is better short-term
• The results are very comparable
• The average drifts but the variation stays

Q70) New quality management tools are being used to help the problem solving process. Which of the following tools provides a numeric ranking of options?

• Interrelationship digraph
• Affinity diagram
• Activity network diagram
• Prioritization matrices

Q71) Benchmarking of performance is:

• Not applicable to most organizations because their processes are unique
• Infrequently used because each company needs to protect their trade secrets
• Ignored because of the perceived barriers to sharing internal company information
• Discouraged because of anti-trust laws

Q72) A six sigma project has progressed to the point that a control plan is required. Control plan activities can be considered closed after which of the following?

• A process owner is named for the control plan
• A responsible engineer is designated
• The cross functional team signs off on the control plan
• The control plan is a “living document” and is rarely closed

Q73) Sampling plans are routinely selected based on their:

I. Validity

II. Known risks

III. Applicability

• I only
• I and II only
• II and III only
• I, II, and III

Q74) Planning for feedback by the project leader during a project would NOT address:

• The method of reporting
• What is to be communicated
• When reports are to be made
• Project milestones

Q75) Gages that tell how much a dimension varies from the specification are called:

• Indicating gages
• Depth gages
• Accurators
• Tolerators

Q76) One could say that CPM is a disciplined methodology for linking product performance to system parameters and then to:

• Systematic design concepts
• Product development activities
• Concurrent engineering activities
• An inventive nine step action sequence

Q77) Which of the following would be considered an advantage of producing product in large lots?

• Maximization of machine efficiencies
• Longer customer delivery lead times
• Additional product transportation expenses
• Potential product damage or deterioration costs

Q78) Since many variables are important in control charting, what is the risk in having an operator plot a large number of characteristics?

• None, if the operator is trained and knowledgeable
• Danger in overlooking a CTQ characteristic
• Distraction from the actual process itself
• It is non-value added work in the lean philosophy

Q79) Which of the following is NOT considered muda?

• Rework due to poor moulding
• Performing design validation
• In-process inspection by an inspector
• Re-tooling because of engineering changes

Q80) A process is checked at random by inspection of samples of four shafts after a polishing operation, and X-bar and R charts are maintained. A person making a spot check measures two shafts accurately, and plots their range on the R chart. The point falls just outside the control limit. He advises the department foreman to stop the process. This decision indicates that:

• The process level is out-of-control
• The process level is out-of-control but not the dispersion
• The person is misusing the chart
• The process dispersion is out-of-control

Q81) An assessment technique to compare a company’s current performance to a desired or potential performance is called:

• Benchmarking
• SWOT Analysis
• Gap Analysis
• Marketplace Response

Q82) Identify the facilitation technique that would most likely result in team conflict:

• Multivoting
• Voting
• Consensus
• Nominal group technique

Q83) In a nutshell, lean six sigma is considered:

• A business improvement approach
• A focus on critical customer items
• An elimination of mistakes and defects
• A concentrated focus on business outputs

Q84) Why is the PDCA cycle so readily accepted by most American teams and individuals?

• It is the natural way that most people already approach problems
• It was promoted by Dr. Deming who has a wide American following
• It has been widely used in Japan with success
• It requires much less work than comparable improvement techniques

Q85) The accuracy level of an instrument when compared to a standard can only be:

• Less than the standard to which it is compared
• Greater than the standard to which it is compared
• Equal to the standard to which it is compared
• Less than or equal to the standard to which it is compared

Q86) When a problem arises in the performance of a team member and it has a negative impact on the performance of the team, which of the following actions would be considered inappropriate?

• The team leader summarily removes the individual from the team
• The leader or members advise the individual of what is expected
• If action to remove the individual from the team is warranted, do so respectfully
• The team leader should clarify expectations with the individual

Q87) A six sigma improvement team would conduct a pilot test of a proposed improvement to determine:

I. If there are adverse side effects

II. If the solution can be optimized

III. If a full-scale implementation will present problems

• I only
• I and II only
• II and III only
• I, II, and III

Q88) Which of the following characterize the muda of waiting?

I. Idle operators

II. Machinery breakdown

III. Uneven schedules

IV. Unnecessary meetings

• I and II only
• II, III, and IV only
• I, II, III, and IV
• I, III, and IV only

Q89) The boundaries of a project are contained in the:

• Problem statement
• Project scope
• Goal statement
• Resources required

Q90) Understanding, controlling, and improving an organization\’92s processes to create value for all stakeholders would be called:

• The SIPOC diagram
• Process performance metric
• Business process management
• The establishment of KPIVs and KPOVs

Q91) Calibration intervals should be adjusted when:

• No defective product is reported as acceptable due to measurement errors
• Few instruments are scrapped during calibration
• The results of previous calibrations reflect few out of tolerance conditions during calibration
• A particular characteristic on the gage is consistently found to be out of tolerance

Q92) Review the following assessment statements: We have tremendous cost advantages We have good marketing skills Our finances are solid Our management team is outstanding What SWOT analysis area is most clearly being described?

• Strengths
• Weaknesses
• Opportunities
• Threats

Q93) A p-chart has exhibited statistical control over a period of time. However, the average fraction defective is too high to be satisfactory. Internal improvement can be obtained by:

I. Changing the basic design of the product

II. Instituting 100% inspection

III. Changing the production process by using new tooling or machinery

• I only
• I and III only
• II and III only
• I, II, and III

Q94) Which of the following statements is most applicable to trend analysis?

• Experience is required for proper interpretation
• Bar charts are more informative than run charts
• Most applications should be reflected in an improvement percentage
• An improving trend is an indication of corporate survival

Q95) In Taguchi design methods, a factor that results in a response variable and can be equated to an independent variable is called a:

• Control factor
• Signal factor
• Noise factor
• Dependent variable

Q96) When a six sigma project team proposes a different mode of attack than envisioned by management, what activity might be required?

• A project transition
• A project closure
• A charter negotiation
• A milestone delay

Q97) Given a sample size of 100 how precisely can we estimate a proportion defective of 0.3

• 1.22
• 0.46
• 0.089
• 0.37

Q98) A chart constructed with defect types on the X axis, customers on the Y axis, and numbers of defects at the corresponding column and row intersections, is called:

• A matrix diagram
• A correlation chart
• A Pareto diagram
• A cause-and-effect diagram

Q99) Identify the quality guru who believed the best approach to understanding the purpose of a quality system would be the four absolutes of quality management.

• Dr. Feigenbaum
• Philip Crosby
• Dr. Deming
• Dr. Juran

Q100) A technique used to measure the degree of interdependence between two random variables is:

• Regression analysis
• Hypothesis testing
• Correlation analysis
• Sampling

Q101) The principal purpose of robust design techniques is to:

• Make the product less sensitive to noise effects
• Use the tools of experimental design
• Reduce the sources of variation
• Improve manufacturing quality

Q102) A randomized block experimental design is most like a:

• Higher – order experiment
• Steepest ascent/descent experiment
• Taguchi robustness design
• A Latin or Graeco-Latin design

Q103) One advantage to employees, rather than consultants, initiating change within the organization is:

They are more objective with regard to the problems

They are higher in cost

They may be part of the problem

They have a greater knowledge about the company

Q104) What is required for SMED?

• All internal and external setup steps must be reviewed in detail
• Outside specialists with knowledge on dies must be consulted
• Outstanding communications between operators and setup personnel
• Process mapping of improvement steps

Q105) One of Dr. Deming’s 14 points for management states, “Cease dependence upon inspection as a way to achieve quality.” The underlying tenet of this statement is which of the following?

• Many American companies employ too many inspectors; perhaps 5% – 10% of the work force
• Quality should be built into the product, not inspected in
• In most cases, the worker should perform his/her own inspection and not rely on someone else
• Most manual inspection will miss 10% – 20% of defects under typical working conditions

Q106) Which of the following devices are associated with the visual factory?

• Standard work instructions
• Andon boards
• Queue times
• Work cells

Q107) From a gap analysis perspective, why does an organization need performance metrics?

• To provide information for goal achievement
• To indicate the number of and return on improvement projects
• To determine the best internal and external benchmarks
• To measure customer retention and loyalty

Q108) Why should an experimenter plot data points and graph the least squares line if a probabilistic regression model exists?

• To visually present the relationship to others
• To check for fit; there may be a calculation error
• There’s no rational reason for doing so
• To permit a projection outside of the test area

Q109) Highly fractional factorial designs are often used as:

• Simplex designs
• Orthogonal designs
• Screening experiments
• Mixture experiments

Q110) The use of the program evaluation and review technique (PERT) requires:

• The critical path to be known in advance
• Slack times to be added to the critical path
• Time estimates for each activity in the network
• Less data than a Gantt chart

Q111) A statistics professor has developed a design for a company. From a practical standpoint, the design should be reviewed because:

I. The professor may have limited plant knowledge

II. There may be undesirable combinations of variable control levels

III. The design may cause a violation of known physical laws

• I only
• I and II only
• II and III only
• I, II, and III

Q112) What is the main disadvantage of presenting a team with an initial project lasting more than 160 days?

• Excessive costs
• A lowered expectation of success
• Too much time away from regular duties
• The possibility that the team will expand the project boundaries

Q113) Tremendous advances have been made in the quality of an electronic component produced in quantities of one million units per year. Last year only six defectives were discovered. A further improvement was made. The plant manager asked the master black belt to run a 100,000 unit trial to determine with 95% confidence if the rate had been lowered by 2 DPMO. What was the master black belts response?

• It will take too much time
• It can’t be done with 100,000 units
• It will only be proven if 0 defectives are found
• We must look for a larger improvement for testing purposes

Q114) Often cost of quality reports reflect 4%-5% of sales when the true amount is 15%-20%. Which of the following cost categories is generally neglected?

• Direct quality department expenses
• Indirect internal and external failure costs
• Preventative quality costs
• Combined appraisal and preventative expenses

Q115) Techniques useful for team facilitators, when narrowing a list of potential problem areas to investigate, include all of the following, EXCEPT:

• Brainstorming
• Nominal Group Technique
• Voting
• Cultivating

Q116) The smallest run number possible to examine the main effects of 22 factors at 2 levels is:

• 23
• 24
• 44
• 56

Q117) Which of the following indicate an out-of-control condition?

I. A trend of 9 points in an upward direction

II. 10 consecutive points above or below the centre

III. 2 of 3 consecutive points outside the two sigma warning limits

• I and II only
• II and III only
• I and III only
• I, II, and III

Q118) In a full factorial experiment with 4 factors at 3 levels each, how many trials are required?

• 24
• 12
• 64
• 81

Q119) Failure modes and effects analysis involves what activity?

• The determination of the probability of failure in a specified period of time
• The expected number of failures in a given time interval
• The study of how a product fails and what causes the failure
• A study of the probability of success in a given time period

Q120) Using a PDCA process to design a customer survey, while implementing a customer feedback and improvement process, is an example of:

• The critical path method
• A customer driven company
• A PDCA process within a PDCA process
• A reactive versus a proactive approach

Q121) Which of the following is considered the sixth ‘S’?

• Sanitation
• Safety
• Simplification
• Setup reduction

Q122) Which of the following 5S stages is primarily the responsibility of top management?

• Shine
• Sustain
• Sort
• Straighten

Q123) Which test will you consider for a non normal data

• f test
• Barletts test
• Levene test
• ANOVA

Q124) Identify the legitimate techniques for ensuring data accuracy and integrity from the options below:

I. Avoid unnecessary rounding of data

II. Screen data to remove entry errors

III. Remove outlier data, as they arise

IV. Record data in time sequence, when appropriate

• I and IV only
• I, II, and IV only
• II, III, and IV only
• I, II, III, and IV

Q125) When developing the potential for win-win agreements, what strategy sequence is most appropriate?

I. Verify areas of agreement

II. Resolve any differences

III. Confirm each party’s goals

IV. Consider alternate solutions

• III, IV, I, II
• I, III, IV, II
• I, III, II, IV
• III, I, IV, II

Q126) To measure external customer satisfaction, which of the following tools would be most effective:

• Management reports
• Supplier assessments
• Internal audits
• Customer surveys

Q127) Which of the following distributions does NOT require the use of the natural logarithmic base for probability calculations?

• Normal
• Poisson
• Weibull
• Binomial

Q128) On surveys from customers, what do high customer satisfaction numbers NOT indicate?

• Customer satisfaction
• Customer service
• Customer loyalty
• Product quality satisfaction

Q129) The design of a solution using a broad set of possible solutions, converging to a narrow set of possible, and then to a final solution, is referred to as:

• The 20 questions approach
• Set-based design
• Systematic design
• The Pugh method

Q130) A lean enterprise approach encompasses which of the following departments?

• Manufacturing only
• All company departments plus suppliers
• Manufacturing, quality, and the supply chain
• Manufacturing and quality departments

Q131) The advantages of a quality cost system would NOT include which of the following items?

• Aligns quality and company goals
• Provides a prioritization system for the allocation of resources
• Ensures the resolution of specific quality problems
• Provides a manageable overview of quality

Q132) What is a major component of SPC?

• EVOP
• Control charts
• Total productive maintenance
• DOE

Q133) When following the design robustness approach, what step follows parameter design?

• Tolerance design
• System design
• Concept design
• Feature design

Q134) The normal order of the stages of a team’s development are often referred to as?

• Forming, norming, storming, performing
• Develop, build, optimize
• Forming, storming, norming, and performing
• Forming, building, optimizing, and performing

Q135) Which of the following is a disadvantage of the effort/impact approach to consensus problem resolution?

• All team members must participate
• Objective data must be obtained
• It takes longer to reach a decision
• It presents the alternatives in a format that cannot be contested.

Q136) In QFD, which of the following steps should occur before proceeding to any additional steps?

• Perform customer competitive assessments
• Conduct technical competitive assessments
• Determine the customer needs
• Assess the technical design features required

Q137) The business case portion of a project charter would be likely to contain:

• A summary of the strategic reasons for the project
• A problem or goal statement
• The resources available to the project team
• The boundaries of the project team

Q138) Identify the data conversion that would be MOST difficult to accomplish:

• Attribute data converted to variables data
• Variables data converted to attribute data
• Accumulated go/no-go data converted to variables data
• Variables data converted to go/no-go data

Q139) After a six sigma team reached the improve phase of the DMAIC cycle, it was clear that a full redesign of the part was the right path to take. From then on, the DMAIC project became a DFSS project. Which control phase should be used for the newly redesigned part?

• FMEA
• Pre-launch
• Production
• Prototype

Q140) Residuals are estimates of experimental error obtained by subtracting the predicted responses from the observed responses. The residuals should be checked for behaviour. This can be accomplished by which of the following methods?

• Applying a statistical test such as a t test
• Using a normal probability plot
• Using a box-and-whiskers box chart
• Comparing the Xs to the Ys

Q141) In flow charts, the diamond symbol is used to represent:

• A process step
• A decision point
• The start of a process
• A continuation operation

Q142) The short-term effect of a dramatic increase in prevention costs would be:

• An increase in total quality costs
• A decrease in appraisal costs
• An increase in external failure costs
• A decrease in internal failure costs

Q143) For organizing information, facts, or data into a systematic, logical manner, which of the following new quality tools would be used?

• An interrelationship digram
• A tree diagram
• An activity network diagram
• Prioritization matrix

Q144) What is a jidhoka?

• A totally automated process to reduce defectives
• A device that identifies good parts
• A technique which separates defectives from good parts
• A device that stops the machine whenever a defective is produced

Q145) Which of the following concepts is mostly associated with Taiichi Ohno?

• SPC
• TOC
• CTQ
• TPS