Google Campaign Manager Certification Assessment Answers

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Enroll Now: Google Campaign Manager Certification Assessment

Google Campaign Manager Certification Assessment Answers

About this Certification

The Campaign Manager Certification exam covers planning, implementing, reporting, and troubleshooting reservation buys, while working across partners. It also assesses ad tag delivery, measurement, and troubleshooting methods used to optimize performance.

Users completing this exam should be experienced users of Campaign Manager. This exam covers broad product use from trafficking to reporting. Specialized roles (such as Agency Planners) may not be well aligned to the broad knowledge tested by this exam.

The knowledge tested in this exam aligns with the following roles:

• Trafficker
• Analyst

About the Exam:

• You will have 60 minutes to complete the exam.
• A score of 80% or higher is required to pass the exam.
• If you close the assessment before completion, the exam will be marked as “not passed.”
• You have unlimited attempts to take the exam. If you do not pass, you will need to wait 24 hours before retaking the exam.

If you find any difficulties you can ask me in the comment section. I wish you all the very best for your exam

Question 1: What cost model only calculates cost for impressions measured as viewable by Active View?

• CPA
• CPC
• CPM
• vCPM

Question 2: Which information can be extracted from the data in the Verification tab? (select two)

• Errors for the ad tag related to implementation issues

• Conversion and revenue performance

• Charts showing all of the errors related to visual performance

• Issues related to content

Question 3: What data is provided in Video Verification?

• Information about ads that served on the same page

• Resolution and bit rate details

• Video player size and viewability

• Asset and transcoding validation

Question 4: What is required to track mobile app conversions using Floodlight tags?

• An HTML5 macro added to the Floodlight tag and ad tag, and uploaded in the SDK

• A user-resettable device identifier passed to both Floodlight tags and the ad tags running in apps

• A Floodlight tag with the activities set to collect in-app variables, available in DT files

• A dynamic publisher pixel implemented in the Floodlight tag

Question 5: When dynamic display creatives are published from Studio, what creative type is set in Campaign Manager?

• HTML5 banner

• Image

• Custom Display Interstitial

• Rich Media

Question 6: For Floodlight tags to properly attribute in-app conversions, what needs to happen within the app?

• The tag needs to be set as INS tag with mobile capacity

• The tag needs to be assigned an app ID

• Device ID needs to be passed into the dc_rdid parameter

• A global site tag (gtag.js) must be used

Question 7: What does an “execution channel” represent in the Planning process?

• The act of sending an RFP to begin the negotiation process with the publisher

• The “link” from the inventory in a media plan to a Campaign Manager campaign where placements can be executed

• A “channel” created between an advertiser and publisher as soon as the RFP is sent

• An area to enter the user’s objectives, budget, and start and end dates

Question 8: When the primary HTML5 assets get delayed, what will serve in a user’s browser as it’s loading?

• Polite load image

• Default ad

• .swf file

• Backup image

Question 9: Where are Campaign Manager and Display & Video 360 linked?

• Advertiser properties

• Floodlight configuration

• Admin subaccounts

• Campaign properties

Question 10: Which two methods measure impressions served in a mobile app? (select two)

• 1×1 impression tracker

• Mobile tracking ad

• Click tracker ad

• Serving mobile creative directly through Campaign Manager

Question 11: What Floodlight conversion counting method would report the first visit for each user within a given day?

• Per session

• Transactions

• Unique

• Standard

Question 12: What are two Video Verification metrics? (select two)

• Video Prominence Score

• Audio muted at finish

• Audio muted at start

• Eligible impressions for audio

Question 13: Which two tabs in Reporting provide access to viewability data? (select two)

• Summary

• Report Builder

• Verification

• Attribution

Question 14: To link a Display & Video 360 advertiser, what initial step must be taken in Campaign Manager?

• Create a new association in the advertiser’s properties and add the Trafficking code

• From Campaign Manager, go to the Google Marketing Platform apps icon and select Display & Video 360

• Add the Display & Video 360 partner ID to the Floodlight configuration as an association

• Contact support using live chat

Question 15: What action must occur for a team member to get access to Data Transfer files in Google Cloud Storage?

• Add the team member’s email to the Google Group associated with the Cloud Storage bucket

• Set up an automated email for the team member to receive daily reports

• Run the script: gs://[bucket_name]/[username]

• Associate the team member with a User Profile designated for Google Cloud acces

Question 16: What Floodlight feature can be used to create a custom audience list that targets customers who purchased a specific product or service?

• Sales Floodlight tags that capture revenue

• Custom Floodlight variable that captures the product or service ID

• Dynamic Floodlight tag that sources product or service IDs

• Custom 1×1 pixel that fires when the product or service page loads

Question 17: What account structure should be used to share Floodlight tags and audience lists between multiple Advertisers?

• A single Floodlight activity

• A parent/child relationship

• An account/advertiser relationship

• Shared billing profiles

Question 18: What attribution model uses Floodlight data from both attributed and non-attributed conversions?

• Time Decay model

• First Interaction model

• Data-driven model

• Linear model

Question 19: In a Path to Conversion report, when a user selects to “Pivot On Interaction Path,” what are two major differences from the unpivoted report? (select two)

• Rows and columns aren’t affected by a pivot, but can only be filtered when unpivoted

• Rows and columns are flipped

• Each conversion gets its own row with interactions in separate columns

• Each interaction gets its own row with interactions spread across rows

Question 20: What object in Campaign Manager is equivalent to a creative in Display & Video 360?

• Ad

• Creative

• Placement

• Campaign

Question 21: What report tracks Floodlight attribution in Reporting?

• Insights

• Cookie Reach Overlap

• Path to Conversion

• Floodlight impressions

Question 22: When using a placement media cost cap, what will happen once the cap is reached?

• Reports will not reflect the impressions and click metrics

• The placement will be paused until the cap is removed

• Ad-serving fees won’t be charged

• Campaign Manager will stop calculating and reporting Media Cost for the Placement moving forward

Question 23: What is the limit to retrieve log data from a Data Transfer Google Bucket?

• Unlimited

• 1 year

• 60 days

• 30 days

Question 24: The Insights tab in Reporting shows the view performance against which three goals? (select three)

• Conversions per impression

• Viewable CPM

• Click rate

• Cost per activity (CPA)

Question 25: Where would purchased inventory for a campaign be entered in Campaign Manager?

• Campaigns

• Landing pages

• Floodlight tags

• Placements

Question 26: Which two methods count impressions on site-served creatives? (select two)

• 1×1 impression tracker

• Tracking Ads

• Mobile tracking ad

• Click tracker ad

Question 27: What level is used to calculate conversions if the lookback window differs between objects?

• Account level

• Site level

• Campaign level

• Placement level

Question 28: If a publisher serves a placement tag after the campaign end date, what ad will serve?

• Nothing will serve

• A random ad

• The backup image

• The default ad

Question 29: Which metric is NOT available in Data Transfer?

• Active View: % of Completed Impressions Visible

• Cross-environment conversions

• % Invalid Clicks

• Designated Market Area (DMA) ID

Question 30: Unless default ads are disabled, what campaign trafficking action triggers the automatic creation of a default ad for display placements?

• Adding a rich media creative at the campaign level

• Adding an image creative at the campaign level

• Adding an image creative at the advertiser level

• Adding an HTML5 creative at the campaign level

Question 31: What settings are required to give a user reporting access for a single advertiser?

• Create a user role, and assign the advertiser as the sub-account.

• Schedule a report to be sent to the user, automatically granting them access to that data

• Ask the advertiser to send an email to support, granting access to their reporting data

• Create a user profile with a reporting-only user role, and filter for that advertiser

Question 32: What HTML elements of a Floodlight tag’s iFrame code identify the unique activity?

• 1×1 and “ord”

• “src” and 1×1

• u1 and “fls”

• “type” and “cat

Question 33: At what level can landing pages be managed across campaigns?

• Creative

• Advertiser

• Ad

• Placement

Question 34: What happens when a user meets the frequency cap for an ad?

• The placement stops serving to that user

• Ads stop serving to that user

• Another ad or a default ad is served

• Ads serve at a lower CPM

Question 35: When a Top Conversion Paths report shows that most users enter the purchase cycle with a rich media interaction, what action can be taken to optimize the campaign?

• Target remarketing lists for all image creatives

• Assign the ad’s frequency cap to one impression per day

• Allocate more budget to building better video creatives

• Create a sequential rotation with the Rich Media creative set first

Question 36: If an Agency Trafficker can only see a subset of active campaigns within their account view, where would a Agency Admin go to adjust access to all campaigns?

• Google account permissions

• User profile filters

• Subaccount access

• User roles

Question 37: What section within a Floodlight activity’s settings allows users to add publisher tracking tags?

• Dynamic tags

• Custom Floodlight variables

• Google Tag Manager

• Advanced properties

Question 38: What feature can be used to combine log-level impression and click data for a custom reach analysis?

• Attribution conversion segments

• Line item filtering in Studio

• Data Transfer

• GRP Insights

Question 39: Paid search dimensions in Report Builder are compatible with what metric?

• Cost Per Click

• Active View

• Downloaded impressions

• Paid Search Revenue

Question 40: What is the more cost-effective way to restrict ads served to a specific geographic region?

• Geo-targeting managed by the ad server

• Frequency caps managed the publisher or DSP

• Geo-targeting managed by a publisher or DSP

• Language targeting managed by the ad server

Question 41: Which three workflows can be used to make bulk edits? (select three)

• The Edit Multiple button

• The Campaign Manager filtered view

• The DCM/DFA Reporting and Trafficking API

• Campaign spreadsheet upload

Question 42: Audience lists created in Campaign Manager can be automatically shared with which linked applications? (select three)

• Google Ads

• Search Ads 360

• Studio

• Display & Video 360

Question 43: When is an impression counted in Reporting?

• As soon as a creative is requested from the publisher

• After a user’s device indicates that the creative download has begun

• After the browser begins loading the webpage

• After the creative is served and viewed on the site

Question 44: What timezone is used in Data Transfer (DT) timestamps for impression and click files?

• The advertiser’s timezone

• Eastern Time (ET)

• The user’s timezone

• Coordinated Universal Time (UTC)

Question 45: What targeting rules display an ad to users who have viewed a product, but not purchased it?

• Positively target all product viewers AND collect purchase IDs using u-variables

• Positively target all product purchasers AND negatively target all product viewers

• Negatively target all product purchasers AND collect purchase IDs using u-variables

• Positively target all product viewers AND negatively target all product purchasers

Question 46: Agency Admin, Agency Trafficker, and Site Trafficker are examples of what?

• Placement strategies

• User roles

• Content categories

• User profiles

Question 47: What report in Report Builder shows the number of unique users who have interacted with ads?

• Cookie Reach Overlap

• Standard

• GRP

• Path to Conversion

Question 48: What must a Floodlight tag include to capture product data alongside a conversion?

• 1×1 tracking pixel

• Custom Floodlight variable

• An ord value

• Dynamic pixels

Question 49: When a “plan” is executed in Planning, what information is pushed to Campaign Manager?

• TrueView placements for running on YouTube properties

• A list of creative specifications for implementing the deals in Display & Video 360

• A list of placements you intend to purchase and the publishers you’re buying inventory from

• A dynamic feed that can be quickly implemented into Studio

Question 50: Which conditions must be true in order to designate an advertiser as a “child”?

• There aren’t any campaigns associated with the “parent” advertiser

• There aren’t any Floodlight activities associated with the “child” advertiser

• The advertiser is part of a subaccount

• The advertiser doesn’t have any “child” advertisers associated with it

Question 51: In the Insights tab in Reporting, which two cards show a snapshot of performance? (select two)

• Device Usage

• Paid Search Ad

• Video Player Size

• Creative Type

Question 52: At what level can landing pages be set, so they are the same across multiple ads?

• Creative

• Ad

• Account

• Placement

Question 53: What ad setting limits the number of times that ad can be shown to a particular user?

• Priority

• Impression ratio

• Frequency cap

• Hard cut-off

Question 54: What are two benefits of using the INS tag? (select two)

• Reduces load latency

• Serves ads on browsers that don’t support Javascript

• Eliminates the need for publishers to add cache-busters

• More robust Verification data

Question 55: What ad setting ensures a qualified user will always be served a city-targeted ad first over a country-targeted ad when both ads are assigned to the same placement?

• Keyword targeting

• Priority

• Frequency cap

• Dynamic targeting keys

Question 56: When assets are added to an existing creative, where will these updates be reflected?

• Within the ads where the creatives are assigned

• In future ad creative assignments, but not within existing ads

• In the creative preview, but not in currently assigned ads

• Updates appear as a new creative